Page 2, Continued on Pages 1, 3, 4, 5

"And no one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven, even the Son-of-Man. And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness [on a stick], even so must the Son-of-Man be lifted up [on a cross]; that whoever believes in Him may have eternal-life. For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish, but have eternal-life."

The primary thing here, John, to understand is that Jesus claimed he was Yehovah-Elohim our Creator. You can write him off as a mad man or insane, but if He was not who He claimed to be, you cannot call Him a good man or a prophet. Because He claimed our salvation depended on our belief in His claims and allegiance to Him, you must either take Him seriously or reject Him as mad. He is either Lord and God our only means to salvation, or he was a mad man to be shunned, rejected and put in the rubber suit and taken away. He did not leave any in between view of Himself, he did not intend to. But again that is the meaning and significance of His physical resurrection from the dead in His humanity, it is His giving us the single greatest proof He could give us, His creative power and control over life and death.

"See now that I, I am He, and there is no Elohim besides Me; it is I who put to death and give life. I have wounded, and it is I who heal; and there is no one who can deliver from My Hand." (Deuteronomy 32:39, Isaiah 43:13)

Jesus said in John 11:25-26 "I am the Resurrection and the Life; he who believes in Me shall live even if he dies, and everyone who lives and believes in Me shall never die." Note that in this passage Jesus does not say God, if he was not God, is the resurrection and the life, He claimed it for himself. Who is the person to believe in, in order to live and have eternal life? God, if God is separate from Jesus? Or Jesus Himself? Jesus said Himself. Jesus pointed to Himself, not God, as the means of life and eternal salvation. While Muhammad claimed to be a prophet, a messenger of God, Jesus claimed to be the message Himself. Jesus said "Whoever is of the truth hears MY VOICE." His voice, not God’s voice, if God was separate from Jesus; not a source of truth, but TRUTH Himself.

The name "Jesus" means "Yehovah is Savior." The angel told Joseph to name the Baby "Jesus" because He, Jesus, would save His people from their sins. God makes plain in Isaiah 43:10-11 that He and He alone is Savior,

"‘You are My witnesses,’ declares Yehovah, ‘And My servant whom I have chosen, in order that you may know and believe Me, and understand that I am He. Before Me there was no El formed, and there will be none after Me. I, even I, am Yehovah; and there is no Savior besides Me.’"

God makes plain that there is no savior besides Him. For Jesus to claim to be our Savior was for Jesus to claim to be Yehovah-Elohim, the one and only true God. What should our response be to such a claim? If He was who He claimed to be then we must bow down to Him as Lord and God as Thomas did through His proof to these claims: His physical resurrection from the dead in His humanity. If Jesus is not Yehovah-Elohim the only true God, than he is a mad man who is insane, not someone to be followed, worshiped or adored. There simply is no in between.

I apologize for being long winded. I try to keep my explanations simple. You asked how God could manifest in a woman’s womb. God is transcendent. That means there is no place God is not. God cannot be limited to the womb of a woman. This was illustrated when Philip came to Nathanael, his brother, and told Him he had found the Messiah (meaning "Anointed One") in Nazareth and Nathanael replied "‘Can any good thing come out of Nazareth?’ Philip said to him, "Come and see" (John 1:46). The passage goes on and states:

"Jesus saw Nathanael coming to Him, and said of him, ‘Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom is no guile!’ Nathanael said to Him, ‘How do You know me?’ Jesus answered and said to him, ‘Before Philip called you, when you were under the fig tree, I saw you.’ Nathanael answered Him, "Rabbi, you are the Son-of-God; You are the King-of-Israel." (John 1:47-49)

Here Jesus is demonstrating His transcendence. Hebrews 4:13 states "And there is no creature hidden from His sight, but all things are open and laid bare to the eyes of Him with whom we have to do." While God took a human nature through Mary, that does not mean God is limited to that human body. We human beings are not transcendent. We are limited to our human bodies and can only see what is in front of us. Being that Jesus is God, He was not limited in sight to His human body, therefore even though his human body was not present with Nathanael when Philip came to get him, yet Jesus in his divinity could see all things without any problem. This in fact is why All judgment is given to Jesus. Jesus said in John 5:21-23,

"For just as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, even so the Son also gives life to whom He wishes. For not even the Father judges anyone, but He has given all judgment to the Son, in order that all may honor the Son, even as they honor the Father, he who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him."

Why did the Father give all Judgment to the Son? To manifest Jesus’ true nature. In order for Jesus to judge all things righteously, He would have to know all things exhaustively, all details, all hidden details, all motives of all men’s hearts, etcetera. This implies an infinite capacity to know and judge all things righteously. Only God has infinite power and all knowledge. So Jesus tells us in this passage that He will have the job of judging all men in the end time judgment and He will do this in order to reveal His true nature which is that He is God Himself. Also the Bible tells us that Jesus holds the atom together. I have a degree in electronic technology. One of the things we discussed in class and the textbooks taught us was that one of the things science cannot explain is how like charged particles, neutrons and protons, can coexist together in the nucleus of an atom. The Bible tells us about Jesus:

"For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities— all things have been created by Him and for Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together." (Colossians 1:16-17)

"And He is the reflected-brightness of His glory and the exact-image of His essence, and upholds all things by the word of His power. When He had made purification of sins, He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high." (Hebrews 1:3)

You said "our book the Quran states that when there was nothing a word was and that, that word created all things: heavens, hell, earth, sky, all are being created by him [Allah]." The Bible tells us about Jesus in the Gospel of John 1:1-3,

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God and the Word was God. This One was in the beginning with God. All things came into being by Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being."

Often times in the Old testament Yehovah is referred to as the Word-of-Yehovah. For example: Zechariah 12:1 states "The burden of the Word-of-Yehovah concerning Israel. Thus declares Yehovah who stretches out the heavens, lays the foundation of the earth, and forms the spirit of man within him." Whose burden? The Word-of-Yehovah’s burden. By the way the hyphens in these titles of God I place in them to indicate the full phrase of a name of God. In John 1:1 Jesus is called the Word-of-God and credited with creating all things. Jehovah Witnesses will tell you that God was creating through Jesus who they claim was Michael the Archangel. Does the Bible support this? God states In Isaiah 44:24 "I, Yehovah, am the maker of all things, Stretching out the heavens by Myself, and spreading out the earth all alone." God makes plain here that when He created, He did it all alone without help from anyone or any created being. Michael the Archangel was a created being. So for John to claim that all things were created through Jesus was for John to claim that Jesus was God.

John writes further in John 1:14 "And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth." Here John tells us that the Word-of-God became flesh, took on a human nature in time, and dwelt among us. While Jesus is the only true God from eternity past, without beginning and without end, yet His humanity had a beginning in time. He further states in John 1:10-11,

"He was in the world, and the world came into being through Him, and the world did not know Him. He came to His own, and those who were His own did not receive Him."

In this Link I document thoroughly the Old Testament’s and the New Testament’s claim to Jesus as the Only True God our Creator:

Now that we have established that Jesus’ is the only true God from eternity past, let us now discuss why in time He chose also to take on a full human nature. John, You asked: "Dale please explain: how can a God manifest in the womb of a woman? Is it the nature of God that he would do so? Why did He not just come directly Himself to teach people? Why was he raised as a human being?" First, God, as I already shared, is transcendant. There is no place that you can go that God is not. Jesus taught us that God is Spirit.

"But an hour is coming, and now is, when the true worshipers shall worship the Father in spirit and truth; for such people the Father seeks to be His worshipers. God is spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth." (John 4:23-24)

Since there is no where that God is not, man who is finite can never truly see God in all his infinity. What we see is the manifestation of God through His creation and His character through His dealing with men. However, in the Old testament whenever God wanted to talk to men, the Bible tells us that he appeared in physical form. Many times when He did he was called the Angel-of-Yehovah. When God manifested Himself to Moses in the Burning Bush in Exodus, Moses calls Him the Angel-of-Yehovah and yet addresses Him as Yehovah, as God.

The Angel-of-Yehovah is appearances of God on the earth in the form of man known as Theophanies in the Old Testament. God walked with Adam and Eve in the garden, but after the fall the Bible tells us that they only heard His voice (Gen 3:8) as Cain did (4:6). Yehovah appeared to Abraham as a man by the oak of Mamre (Gen 18). Jacob saw Him in a dream (Gen 28:10-17). God usually appeared to men in dreams except with Abraham. In Genesis 18 Abraham bowed and worshiped the Angel-of-Yehovah addressing him as "Yehovah". This Angel-of-Yehovah said to Abraham that He was yD;v'-la, El-Shaddai, God-Almighty (Genesis 17:1); thus we read in Genesis 18:17, "Yehovah said, ‘Shall I hide from Abraham what I am about to do?" It is to this angel, Yehovah, that Abraham intercedes to for Sodom. Thus we read in Genesis 19:24, "Then Yehovah rained on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire from Yehovah out of heaven." Here we have a clear distinction made between the visible Yehovah on earth and the invisible Yehovah in heaven. Who then is the Angel-of-Yehovah? The Apostle John wrote in John 1:18 concerning Jesus, "No one has seen God at any time; the only-begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, that one has revealed Him." John tells us that no one has ever seen God the Father, but that the only begotten God-Man, Jesus, has revealed Him. Therefore, whenever the Angel-of-Yehovah appeared in the Old Testament and was referred to as Yehovah, it was Jesus manifested physically. Why did God manifest in this form in the Old Testament? As a reference point of finite man to relate to. these were temporary appearance of Jesus in human form in the Old Testament.  Next Page

Continued on Pages 1, 3, 4, 5